Thursday 23 February 2023

Welspun Steel Resources Pvt. Ltd. Vs. Union of India - The bar against action against the property, is available, not only to the corporate debtor but also to any person who acquires property of the corporate debtor under the CIRP or the liquidation process. [Section-32A]

High Court of Gujarat (17.02.2023) In Welspun Steel Resources Pvt. Ltd. Vs. Union of India [R/Special Civil Application No. 19387 of 2022 ] held that;

  • The bar against action against the property, is available, not only to the corporate debtor but also to any person who acquires property of the corporate debtor under the CIRP or the liquidation process. The bar against action against the property of the corporate debtor is also available in the case of a person subject to the same limitation as prescribed in sub-Section (1) and also in sub- Section (2), if he has purchased the property of the corporate debtor in the proceedings for the liquidation of the corporate debtor.

  • The extinguishment of the criminal liability of the corporate debtor is apparently important to the new management to make a clean break with the past and start on a clean slate.

  • Therefore, what is clear is that it is only such property which is derived or obtained directly or indirectly as a result of a criminal activity can be regarded as proceeds of crime.

  • In the facts of the case, obviously apparent it is that the only allegation and the gist that had been discussed is that the corporate debtor used the credit raised from the bank for purposes other than intended purposes to carry out circular transactions with various group companies and making overseas investments. 

  • There is no explanation as to how the properties standing in the name of corporate debtor and which form part of the assets sold to the petitioners are proceeds of crime especially since these assets are neither overseas assets or that of the group companies.

  • Merely because the impugned order records alleged fraudulent transactions and diversion of funds, it cannot automatically lead to a conclusion that the properties acquired by the petitioners are proceeds of crime.

  • That reason to believe must be founded on sufficient material. It cannot be founded on mere suspicion but based on evidence. It must be held in good faith, cannot be merely a pretense. It is always open for the court to examine whether the reason to believe has a rational connection or a relevant bearing to the formation of the belief and the reasons are not extraneous or irrelevant to the purpose.

  • When the assumption of jurisdiction by the authorities itself is non-existent and the respondent proceeds on facts which have no nexus to the objects sought to be achieved, and the opinion is not based on any tangible material, ‘reason to believe’  is a jurisdictional fact and in absence of suchreason to believe’ arrived at by the authorities, the bar of alternative remedy cannot oust the jurisdiction of this court.


Blogger’s Comments; All said and done, the principal objective of attachment & confiscation of tainted property in PMLA is that a person/company is not able to enjoy the proceeds of crime. Under IBC, as soon as the application under section 7, 9 or 10 is accepted, the control of the company is divested from its promoters/directors/existing management & the promoters/directors are prevented from taking back the control of the company (Section 29A & section 32A) either during insolvency proceedings or during liquidation process, thus fulfilling the principal objective of PMLA.


Rather, attachment of company’s property (particularly liquid assets i.e. bank accounts etc.) under the provisions of PMLA, during insolvency/liquidation proceedings frustrate the principal objective of the IBC, to put the assets of insolvent companies in the beneficial use of the society. In contrast due  to protracted proceedings in PMLA the value of the assets gets diminished, which ultimately is the loss of the society.


Excerpts of the order; 

# 1. The prayers in this petition read as under:

  • “a) Issue a Writ of Certiorari and/or a Writ in the nature of Certiorari and/or any other appropriate Writ/order inter alia quashing and setting aside the Provisional Attachment Order No. 8 of 2022 dated 21st September 2022 passed by Respondent No. 1 to the extent it attaches the Specified Assets that have been sold to the Petitioners;

  • b) Issue a Writ of Mandamus and/or a Writ in the nature of Mandamus and/or any other appropriate Writ/order inter alia to declare and order that the right, title and interest of the Petitioners to the Specified Assets sold to the Petitioners will not be affected in any manner by any action taken/to be taken by Respondent No. 1 under the provisions of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act against the Corporate Debtor or the Corporate Debtor’s promoters;”


# 2. Facts in brief are as under:

2.1 The petitioners namely (I) Welspun Steel Resources Private Limited (II) Welspun Corp Limited (III) Rank Real Estate and Infra Developers Private Limited and (IV) Mauyaan Shipyard Private Limited have approached this court challenging the provisional attachment order no. 8/22 dated 21.09.2022. ABG Shipyard Limited (the corporate debtor) was in the business of ship building in Dahej, Gujarat. An application under Section 7 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (IBC) was filed by the ICICI Bank against the Corporate Debtor which was admitted by the National Company Law Tribunal, Ahmedabad (NCLT). The respondent no. 2, after passing of an order on admission was appointed as an Interim Resolution Professional (IRP) and was subsequently confirmed as RP (Resolution Professional) by the Corporate Debtor. The Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process of the corporate debtor went on unsuccessfully for a period of one and half years and since it could not be resolved, by an order dated 25.04.2019, the corporate debtor was ordered to be liquidated by the NCLT. Several attempts to sell the assets were made but these public auctions had failed.

2.2 On 16.08.2021, the NCLT passed an order permitting the liquidator to complete the sale of assets on a composite basis and directed the liquidator to complete the process within a period of three weeks. On 24.08.2021, the liquidator issued a bid document for sale of specified assets of ABG Shipyard. The petitioners submitted their expression of interest on 26.08.2021. One of the bidders from the abandoned Swiss Challenge Process filed an appeal before the NCLT challenging the order of the NCLT dated 16.08.2021 permitting the liquidator to complete the sale of assets on a composite basis. The National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) upheld the order of NCLT.

2.3 On a challenge before the Apex Court, the Apex Court upheld the power of the liquidator to sell the assets and pursuant thereto the liquidator resumes the sale process by amending the bid document. The petitioners were successful bidders. It appears that in the interregnum, State Bank of India who was one of the lenders filed a complaint against the corporate debtor and promoters with the CBI. On 07.02.2022, an FIR was registered pursuant to the complaint by the CBI. On 15.02.2022, an enforcement case was recorded under Section 3 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2022 (PMLA).

2.4 After the petitioners were declared as successful bidders and had paid their entire sale consideration for specified assets, on 21.09.2022, the liquidator informed the petitioners that the respondent no. 1 – Deputy Director of Directorate of Enforcement had passed an order in respect of the assets that were sold to the petitioners. On 22.09.2022, a press note was published informing on its website that it had attached the assets of the corporate debtor. A copy of the provisional attachment order dated 21.09.2022 was received by the petitioners on 22.09.2022. The gist of the allegations contained in the order was that the loans raised on the banks were transferred to group companies and other businesses instead of using them for the intended purposes and that the corporate debtor was carrying out circular transactions with various group companies and making overseas investment. The petitioners being successful bidders of the specified assets which they had purchased pursuant to the auction proceedings conducted under the orders of the Apex Court the petitioners on 21.09.2022, paid the entire sale consideration of Rs.676 crores plus applicable taxes aggregating to Rs.789,05,00,000/- to the liquidator and who in turn issued sale certificates to the petitioners in respect of the specified assets put up for sale. For the purposes of purchase of these assets, the petitioners have availed of a loan of Rs.400 crores from the Indusind Bank and the primary security for the loans is the assets of the corporate debtor. It is these very assets which by the impugned order have been attached by the respondent no. 1.


# 3. Mr. Mihir Joshi, learned Senior Advocate assisted by Mr. Jay Kansara and Ms. Alisha Mehta, learned advocates for the petitioners would submit that Section 32(A) of the IBC creates a bar and the respondent no. 1 therefore was wholly divested of all jurisdiction to take any action against the specified assets which have been sold to the petitioners. He would submit that the Apex Court has upheld the constitutional validity of Section 32A after specifically considering the provisions of the PMLA. In support of his submissions, Mr. Joshi would rely on the decision in the cases of 

  • (I) Manish Kumar vs. Union of India and Another [2021(5) SCC 1, paras 320-326]

  • (II) Rajiv Chakrborty Resolution Professional of EIEL vs. Directorate of Enforcement of the Delhi High Court [2022 SCC OnLine DEL 3703, paras 114 & 115].

3.1 Mr. Joshi, learned Senior Counsel would take the court to the provisions of Section 5 of the PMLA and submit that the impugned order does not determine that there is a ‘reason to believe’. He would submit that the foremost requirement under the provisions of the Act particularly section 5 of the Act is to form a reason to believe that the properties standing the in the name of the corporate debtor and forming part of the assets sold to the petitioners are ‘proceeds of crime’. Reading the definition of the term ‘proceeds of crime’ as defined in section 2(u) of the Act he would submit that if any property is derived or obtained directly or indirectly by any person as a result of criminal activity, the property so derived would be ‘proceeds of crime’. The petitioners have obtained the specified assets after a private sale conducted in accordance with the directions of the Apex Court and for which they have paid substantial amounts. Such properties therefore cannot be treated as property derived or obtained as a result of any criminal activity so as to be attached under Section 5 of the Act. Taking the court through the impugned order, he would submit that the case of the authority was that the ABG Shipyard had availed credit facility from consortium of banks and had diverted the funds so availed and used the funds for purchase of properties. The petitioners were in no manner concerned with the money trail as demonstrated in the impugned order and therefore the properties purchased through auction cannot be said to be properties derived from proceeds of crime. In coming to a conclusion that the assets acquired by the petitioners are proceeds of crime, the authorities have to come to ‘reason to believe’ that the possession that the petitioners have of the assets are from the proceeds of crime. In absence of any material, the authority has no ‘reason to believe’ that these assets are acquired from the proceeds of crime.

3.2 Mr. Joshi would submit that the expression ‘reason to believe’ does not mean purely subjective satisfaction. The reasons for the belief must have a rational connection or a relevant bearing to the formation of belief. It must be that one honest and a reasonable person based upon a reasonable ground. The reason to believe cannot arise from mere suspicion, gossip or rumour. The order suffers from non-application of mind as there are no objective reasons to believe recorded in the order. For a property to be a ‘proceed of crime’ must be derived and obtained directly or indirectly as a result of any criminal activity. Reason to believe is not bonafide and is not based on jurisdictional facts.

3.3 The petitioners, in Mr. Joshi’s submission cannot invoke any other remedy than that of filing the present petition as ‘reason to believe’ is a jurisdictional fact which must be determined prior to assuming jurisdiction. In support of his submission, Mr. Joshi would rely on the following decisions:

  • (a) Vijay Madanlal Choudhary vs. Union of India [2022 SCC OnLine SC 929];

  • (b) Madhya Pradesh Industries Ltd. vs. Income Tax Officer, Nagpur [(1970) 2 SCC 32];

  • (c) S. Ganga Saran and Sons (Pvt.) Ltd., Calcutta vs. Income Tax Officer and Ors. [(1981) 3 SCC 143];

  • (d) Sheo Nath Singh vs. Appellate Assistant Commissioner of Income Tax, Calcutta [(1972) 3 SCC 234);

  • (e) Radha Krishan Industries vs. State of Himachal Pradesh and Ors. [(2021) 6 SCC 771];

  • (f) Calcutta Discount Co. Ltd. vs. Income Tax Officer, Companies District I Calcutta and Anr. [AIR 1961 SC 372];

  • (g) The Income Tax Officer, I Ward, District VI, Calcutta and Others vs. Lakmani Mewal Das [(1976) 3 SCC 757].

3.4 Mr. Joshi would submit that the reasons to believe must be communicated in a crisp manner and reasons must be recorded which must be apparent from the order itself which is absent in the impugned order and is not recorded. He would rely on the following decisions:

  • (h) Shreya Singhal vs. Union of India [(2015) 5 SCC 1]

  • (i) CIT, West Bengal – III amd Ors. vs. Oriental Rubber Works [(1984) 1 SCC 700]

3.5 Assailing the order of attachment, it was Mr. Joshi’s submission that even the formation of an opinion must be based on tangible material. The subjective satisfaction as to the need for provisional attachment must be based on credible information and not on imaginary grounds and wishful thinking however laudable that may be. He relied on the following decisions

  • (j) Radha Krishan Industries vs. State of Himachal Pradesh and Ors. [(2021) 6 SCC 771]

3.6 It is the submission of Mr. Joshi that what is pertinent to notice is that these assets were not procured pursuant to any criminal activity. The orders cannot be challenged except by filing the present petition as there is no efficacious alternative remedy challenging the order. Reading the provisions of Section 8 of the PMLA, Mr. Joshi would submit that after conclusion of the process under Section 5(5) of the Act, the matter is handed over to the adjudicating authorities under Section 8 and the onus would be on the petitioners to show-cause as to why the specified assets are not proceeds of crime. In support of the same, he has relied on the following decisions:

  • (k) Radha Krishan Industries vs. State of Himachal Pradesh and Ors. [(2021) 6 SCC 771];

  • (l) Calcutta Discount Co. Ltd. vs. Income Tax Officer, Companies District I Calcutta and Anr. [AIR 1961 SC 372];

3.7 Mr. Joshi would submit that the consequences of provisional attachment are drastic and extraordinary and in absence of any cogent and credible material which constitute malice in law.

3.8 Making a fine distinction between a jurisdictional fact and an adjudicatory fact, Mr. Joshi would submit that a jurisdictional fact is a fact which must exist before a court or an authority assumes jurisdiction over a particular matter. If a jurisdictional fact does not exist, the court, authority or officer cannot act. Such an order therefore can be questioned by a writ of certiorari. The principle is that by erroneously assuming existence of a jurisdictional fact no authority can confer upon itself jurisdiction which it otherwise does not possess. Absence of jurisdiction is an exception and an alternative remedy cannot oust the jurisdiction of this court to exercise discretion in favour of the petitioners.

3.9 Mr. Joshi further pointed out that the original complainant, the State Bank of India was already a part of the SCC during the liquidation process and no objection was raised by the bank with respect to sale of assets by the petitioner and therefore when the complainant itself is agreeable to sell the very assets there is no question of attaching the very property.


# 4. Mr. Saurabh Soparkar, learned Senior Advocate assisted by Mr. Monaal Dawawala, learned advocate appearing for respondent no. 2 liquidator has supported the submissions made by the petitioners. He would submit that the orders are in violation of the provisions of Section 33(5) of IBC. No findings have been recorded that the properties are ‘proceeds of crime’. Relying on the decision in the case of CB Gautam vs. Union of India reported in 1993 (1) SCC 78, he would submit that the Apex Court has categorically held that recording of reasons which leads to passing of the order is a deterrent against arbitrary action. There is no nexus between the attached properties and diversion of funds. The impugned order is also in violation of provisions of Section 32(A) of IBC. The properties were purchased by the petitioners in a sale process conducted in accordance with law and in compliance of the Apex Court orders.

5. Mr. Devang Vyas, learned ASG appearing with Mr. Parth Bhatt, learned Standing Counsel for the respondent Union of India would take the court through the scheme of PMLA, especially reading sections 5, 8 and 42 thereof, and submit that the petition is not maintainable as not only the attachment is provisional and therefore the petitioner is at liberty to appear before the adjudicating authority under section 8 of the PMLA and satisfy the authority of the fact that the assets are not proceeds of crime. He would submit that in view of the investigation carried out under the provisions of PMLA what has been found is that the proceeds of the crime are to the tune of Rs.27,47,69,57,435/-.

5.1 Mr. Vyas would submit that the IBC would not prevail over PMLA since the objective is distinct from the purposes of other enactments. By virtue of Section 71 of the PMLA, it is apparent that the Act has an overriding effect.

5.2 Mr. Vyas would extensively read the contents of the order of attachment and submit that the same is in strict compliance of the Act and such reasons are recorded in writing as per the provisions. He would submit that on a complaint being lodged before the enforcement authorities, investigation was carried out, forensic audit was done and it was found that there was diversion of funds. The attachment was therefore necessary. In support of the contentions, Mr. Vyas would rely on the following decisions:

  • (i) Farida Begum Biswas vs. Union of India reported in 2015 SCC online Del 11834;

  • (ii) The State of Maharashtra and Others vs. Greatship (India) Limited [Civil Appeal No. 4956 of 2022];

  • (iii) Nitin Hasmukhlal Shah vs. Union of India [Special Civil Application No. 9946 of 2020];

  • (iv) G. Gopalkrishnan vs. Deputy Director, Directorate of Enforcement and other [WP (MD) No. 11454 of 2018];

  • (v) Kiran Shah vs. Enforcement Directorate, Kolkata reported in 2022 SCC Online NCLAT 2];

  • (vi) Apex Laboratories Private Ltd. vs. Deputy Commissioner of Income Tax reported in (2022) 7 SCC 98;

  • (vii) Varsana Ispat Limited vs. Deputy Director, Directorate of Enforcement NCLAT [Company Appeal (AT) (Insolvency) No. 493 of 2018]


# 6. Having considered the submissions made by the learned advocates for the respective parties, the legality of the order under challenge has to be addressed from the point of view whether the assets acquired by the petitioners can at all be said to be ‘proceeds of crime’. This is not only in light of the manner and the method in which the specified assets have been acquired by the petitioners but also in light of the provisions of the IBC. From the chain of events narrated in the earlier part of this judgement what is evident is that ABG Shipyard Limited went into liquidation. Assets of the company ‘corporate debtor’ were offered for sale pursuant to an auction held under the directions of the Apex Court. The petitioners were successful bidders and had after depositing the entire sale consideration received sale certificates. Certainly can it not be said that the assets which are ‘specified assets’ which the petitioners have acquired are those assets which are acquired as a result of criminal activity and therefore can be said to be ‘proceeds of crime’. In the decision in the case of Manish Kumar (supra), the Apex Court while considering the constitutionality of Section 32(A) of IBC held as under:

“320. Coming to sub-Section (2) of Section 32A, it declares a bar against taking any action against property of the corporate debtor. This bar also contemplates the connection between the offence committed by the corporate debtor before the commencement of the CIRP and the property of the corporate debtor. This bar is conditional to the property being covered under the Resolution Plan. The further requirement is that a Resolution Plan must be approved by the Adjudicating Authority and, finally, the approved plan, must result in a change in control of the corporate debtor not to a person, who is already identified and described in sub-Section (1). In other words, the requirements for invoking the bar against proceeding against the property of the corporate debtor in relation to an offence committed before the commencement of the CIRP, are as follows:

320.1 There must be Resolution Plan, which is approved by the Adjudication Authority under Section 31 of the Code;

320.2 The approved Resolution Plan must result in the change in control of the corporate debtor to a person, who was not – (a) a promoter; (b) in the management or control of the corporate debtor or (c) a related party of the corporate debtor; (d) a person with regard to whom the investigating authority, had, on the basis of the material, reason to believe that he has abetted or conspired for the commission of the offence and has submitted a Report or a complaint. If all these aforesaid conditions are fulfilled then the Law Giver has provided that no action can be taken against the property of the corporate debtor in connection with the offence;

321. The Explanation to sub-Section (2) has clarified that the words “an action against the property of the corporate debtor in relation to an offence”, would include the attachment, seizure, retention or confiscation of such property under the law applicable to the corporate debtor. Since the word “include” is used under sub-clause (i) of the Explanation, the word “action” against the property of the corporate debtor is intended to have the widest possible amplitude. There is a clear nexus with the object of the Code. The other part of the clarification, under the Explanation, is found in the second sub-clause of the Explanation

322. Under the second limb of the Explanation, the Law Giver has clearly articulated the point that as far as the property of any person, other than the corporate debtor or any person who had acquired the property of the corporate debtor through the CIRP or liquidation process under the Code and who otherwise fulfil the requirement under Section 32A, action can be taken against the property of such other person.

323. Thus, reading sub-Section (1) and sub-Section(2) together, two results emerge:

323.1 Subject to the requirements embedded in sub- Section (1), the liability of the corporate, debtor for the offence committed under the CIRP, will cease.

323.2 The property of the corporate debtor is protected from any legal action again subject to the safeguards, which we have indicated.

323.3 The bar against action against the property, is available, not only to the corporate debtor but also to any person who acquires property of the corporate debtor under the CIRP or the liquidation process. The bar against action against the property of the corporate debtor is also available in the case of a person subject to the same limitation as prescribed in sub-Section (1) and also in sub- Section (2), if he has purchased the property of the corporate debtor in the proceedings for the liquidation of the corporate debtor.

324. The last segment of Section 32A makes it obligatory on the part of the corporate debtor or any person, to whom immunity is provided under Section 32A, to provide all assistance to the Investigating Officer qua any offence committed prior to the commencement of the CIRP.

325. The contentions of the petitioners appear to be that this provision is constitutionally anathema as it confers an undeserved immunity for the property which would be acquired with the proceeds of a crime. The provisions of the Prevention of Money-Laundering Act, 2002 (for short, the PMLA) are pressed before us. It is contended that the prohibition against proceeding against the property, affects the interest of stakeholders like the petitioners who may be allottees or other creditors. In short, it appears to be their contention that the provisions cannot stand the scrutiny of the Court when tested on the anvil of Article 14 of the Constitution of India. The provision is projected as being manifestly arbitrary. To screen valuable properties from being proceeded against, result in the gravest prejudice to the home buyers and other creditors. The stand of the Union of India is clear. The provision is born out of experience. The Code was enacted in the year 2016. In the course of its working, the experience it has produced, is that, resolution applicants are reticent in putting up a Resolution Plan, and even if it is forthcoming, it is not fair to the interest of the corporate debtor and the other stake holders.

326. We are of the clear view that no case whatsoever is made out to seek invalidation of Section 32A. The boundaries of this Court’s jurisdiction are clear. The wisdom of the legislation is not open to judicial review. Having regard to the object of the Code, the experience of the working of the code, the interests of all stakeholders including most importantly the imperative need to attract resolution applicants who would not shy away from offering reasonable and fair value as part of the resolution plan if the legislature thought that immunity be granted to the corporate debtor as also its property, it hardly furnishes a ground for this this Court to interfere. The provision is carefully thought out. It is not as if the wrongdoers are allowed to get away. They remain liable. The extinguishment of the criminal liability of the corporate debtor is apparently important to the new management to make a clean break with the past and start on a clean slate. We must also not overlook the principle that the impugned provision is part of an economic measure. The reverence courts justifiably hold such laws in cannot but be applicable in the instant case as well. The provision deals with reference to offences committed prior to the commencement of the CIRP. With the admission of the application the management of the corporate debtor passes into the hands of the Interim Resolution Professional and thereafter into the hands of the Resolution Professional subject undoubtedly to the control by the Committee of Creditors. As far as protection afforded to the property is concerned there is clearly a rationale behind it. Having regard to the object of the statute we hardly see any manifest arbitrariness in the provision.”


6.1 If the authorities were given a free hand to pass orders of attachment of properties which were acquired by a successful bidder in a liquidation process, on a presumption that such acquisition was as a result of a  criminal activity, could be contrary to the interest of value maximization of the corporate debtor’s assets by substantially reducing the chances of finding a willing resolution applicant or a bidder in liquidation.


6.4 Therefore, what is clear is that it is only such property which is derived or obtained directly or indirectly as a result of a criminal activity can be regarded as proceeds of crime. In the facts of the case, obviously apparent it is that the only allegation and the gist that had been discussed is that the corporate debtor used the credit raised from the bank for purposes other than intended purposes to carry out circular transactions with various group companies and making overseas investments. There is no explanation as to how the properties standing in the name of corporate debtor and which form part of the assets sold to the petitioners are proceeds of crime especially since these assets are neither overseas assets or that of the group companies.


7. Sine qua non to arrive at a determination that the assets are proceeds of crime, the foremost requirement is that the author has to have ‘reason to believe’ on the basis of material in his possession. ‘Reason to believe’ cannot arise from mere suspicion, gossip or rumour. Merely because the impugned order records alleged fraudulent transactions and diversion of funds, it cannot automatically lead to a conclusion that the properties acquired by the petitioners are proceeds of crime. In order to arrive at a conclusion that ‘reason to believe’ exists, there must be some material to suggest such formation of opinion. The decisions in the cases of Madhya Pradesh Industries Ltd.(supra), S. Ganga Saran and Sons (Pvt.) Ltd. (supra), Sheo Nath Singh (supra), Radha Krishan Industries (supra), Calcutta Discount Co. Ltd. (supra) and Lakhmani Mewal Das (supra) have set out principles where the courts have held that reason to believe must be founded on sufficient material. It cannot be founded on mere suspicion but based on evidence. It must be held in good faith, cannot be merely a pretense. It is always open for the court to examine whether the reason to believe has a rational connection or a relevant bearing to the formation of the belief and the reasons are not extraneous or irrelevant to the purpose. Reading the contents of the order indicates that such observations are based on only on suspicion and are such which one that cannot be arrived at by an honest and a reasonable person but are based on mere suspicion, gossip or rumour.

# 8. As far as the aspect of alternative remedy is concerned, which is vehemently pressed into service by the learned ASG Mr. Vyas, as discussed hereinabove, when the assumption of jurisdiction by the authorities itself is non-existent and the respondent proceeds on facts which have no nexus to the objects sought to be achieved, and the opinion is not based on any tangible material, ‘reason to believe’ is a jurisdictional fact and in absence of suchreason to believe’ arrived at by the authorities, the bar of alternative remedy cannot oust the jurisdiction of this court.


# 9. As far as section 8 of the PMLA is concerned, what is evident on reading the provision is that the onus shifts on the petitioners once the adjudicating authority decides to take action and therefore section 8 cannot be a ground on which the petitioner can be ousted from securing a relief in exercise of powers under Article 226 of the Constitution of India.


# 10. For the aforesaid reasons therefore, the petition is allowed. The order dated 21.09.2022 insofar as it attaches the specified assets of the petitioners as shown in para 12 of the impugned order in the schedule of properties at Sr. Nos. 13, 14, 15, 17, 18, 19 and 20 shall be treated as assets not falling within the purview of and having acquired from ‘proceeds of crime’. The order holding so is without jurisdiction and the assets are directed to be released from such attachment. Order accordingly. Rule is made absolute. No costs.

 

-------------------------------------------------------------


Sunday 19 February 2023

Saboo Tor Private Limited Vs. Mr. Sanjay Gupta, Liquidator Case Cold Roll Forming Ltd. - Appellate Authority confirmed the action of Liquidator for forfeiture of EMD observing - The facts in the attendant case are distinguishable in the sense that the successful bidder herein has paid only 10% of the EMD amount and not 25%,

NCLAT New Delhi (18.01.2023) In Saboo Tor Private Limited Vs. Mr. Sanjay Gupta, Liquidator Case Cold Roll Forming Ltd.. [Company Appeal (AT) (Insolvency) No. 1098 of 2020] held that;

  • The facts in the attendant case are distinguishable in the sense that the successful bidder herein has paid only 10% of the EMD amount and not 25%, 

  • There was no consent taken to make the balance payment alongwith interest charges and lastly, the bidder in the instant case was admittedly put to ‘Notice’ by way of repeated e-mails. Additionally, the facts specific to this case evidence that the ‘forfeiture’ has no nexus with any consequential benefit gained/or loss suffered by the Respondent.


Excerpts of the order;

# 1. The Appellant is the unsuccessful Applicant in I.A. No. 3413 of 2020 in Company Petition No. (IB)-473/PB/2018 filed before the Ld. Adjudicating Authority,  National  Company  Law  Tribunal,  Principal  Bench,  New  Delhi seeking refund of the earnest money deposited which was forfeited by the The Ld. Adjudicating Authority, while dismissing the Application observed as follows:

  • “5. Over and above the factual background, the liquidator has stated that this applicant filed a civil suit before Civil Court Nahan, District Sirmour, Himachal Pradesh in relation to this issue and obtained ex-parte order, over which when the liquidator filed Order VII Rule 11 application stating that Civil Court has no jurisdiction to deal with the issue falling within IBC as per Section 63 of Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, that civil suit was dismissed vide order dated 13.08.2020.

  • 6. Soon after dismissal of the aforesaid suit, since the liquidator is bound by time to complete process of liquidation, the liquidator has again conducted the bidding process and sold the assets of the company including the assets involved in the earlier bidding and liquidated the company, now he is about to file dissolution application before this Bench.

  • 7. As against the submission of the liquidator, the applicant counsel has stated that the applicant is at liberty to make payments after thirty days along with the interest @12 %, if at all bidder has failed to make payment within thirty days from the date on which 25% to be made, then only sale shall be cancelled if the payment is not received within ninety days.

  • 8 To which, the liquidator counsel has stated that this clause is applicable only to the item 13 in the column, that is for payment of balance consideration of 75 % after the bidder has paid 25%, but not at the stage of paying 25 %. If the successful bidder failed to pay the remaining 75 % of the balance consideration payable by the bidder, then interest is leviable in between 30 days and outer limit of 90 days.

  • 9. Here the issue is this applicant has not even paid initial 25 % as per the documents accepted by him, then the question of invocation of the clause aforesaid will not arise.

  • 10. At last, the applicant counsel has requested this bench to consider the aspect on equity ground and direct the liquidator to refund the money that was paid by the applicant.

  • 11. When law is very clear and the applicant has entered into the bidding process based on the terms and conditions in the bidding documents, today the applicant cannot turn around and ask for refund after failing to comply with the terms and conditions of the agreement, therefore we have not found any merit in this application, hence this application is hereby dismissed as misconceived.”


# 2. Succinctly put, the facts in briefs are that the liquidator of the second Respondent Company invited EPI for sale of raw material, scrap, stores, spares, consumables and finished goods on 20.02.2020 at a Reserved Price of  Rs.  1.59/-  crores.  The  Appellant  participated  in  the  E-Auction  and deposited 10% of the EMD amount, amounting to Rs. 16/- lakhs and also submitted a bid for Rs. 3,75,00,786/-. The E-Auction was held on 18.03.2020 and the Appellant was declared as a successful bidder. On 20.03.2020, the Liquidator issued the Letter of Intent (‘LoI’) to the Appellant which was received on 23.03.2020 and as per the terms of the ‘LoI’ the successful bidder was required to pay 25% of the total consideration by 25.03.2020. The Appellant had sought for extension of time for payment of the entire 25% bid amount and extension was granted by the Liquidator up upto  31.03.2020.  It  is  the  case  of  the  Appellant  that  despite  several requests made, the Respondent had forfeited the entire money deposited.


# 3. Learned Counsel appearing for the Appellant vehemently contended that the ‘LoI’ dated 20.03.2020 was received on 23.03.2020; that no time was given for acceptance of the same as the timelines given for unconditional acceptance of ‘LoI’ was the same date i.e. 23.03.2020; that the Appellant was unable to deposit the entire balance amount of 25% of the bid amount by 25.03.2020 on account of lockdown imposed in the Country which led to closure of their Unit and hence in the e-mail dated 25.03.2020 the Appellant had sought for extension of time; that the Liquidator responded vide e-mail dated 29.03.2020 and extended the time by only two days i.e. upto 31.03.2020 and that despite several e-mails exchanged between the parties explaining the difficulties experienced due to lockdown, the earnest money deposited was forfeited on 23.05.2020.


# 4. The Learned Counsel drew our attention to the clauses mentioned in the ‘Corrigendum to Extension of Timelines for E-Auction’(hereinafter referred to as ‘the Corrigendum’) dated 03.2020. For better understanding of the case, the same is being reproduced as hereunder:


“CORRIGENDUM TO EXTENSION OF TIMELINES FOR E-AUCTION

FOR SALE-NOTICE FOR CASE COLD ROLL FORMING

LIMITED-IN LIQUDATION

CIN; U67200DL2017PTC322243

(Sale of Assets under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016)

Notice is hereby given that in furtherance of the E-Auction Process Document dated 20th February, 2020, the timelines of E-Auction has been revised and shall be as follows;

S.NO

Description of activity

Revised Timelines

1

Submission of Bid Forms

Monday,16th March,2020

2

Site Visits and Discussion Meeting

Monday,16th March,2020

3

KYC declaration, Due Diligence

Monday,16th March,2020

4

Request   to   Liquidator   to   permit submission of Earnest Money by the Interested Bidder through Associate Company its

Monday,16th March,2020

5

EMD submission

Tuesday,17th March,2020

6

Opening  of  E-voting  for  successful bidders   and   communication with them

Tuesday,17th March,2020

7

Proposed E-Auction Date

Wednesday,18th March,2020

8

Announcement of Successful Bidder

Wednesday,18th March,2020

9

Letter of Intent (LoI) to be issued to the Successful Bidder

Friday,20th March,2020

10

Unconditional acceptance of LoI

Monday, 23rd March,2020

11

Payment up to 25% of total consideration by successful bidder

Wednesday,25thMarch,2020

12

Return of Earnest Money to unsuccessful Qualified Bidder(s)

Thursday, 26th March, 2020

13

Payment of balance consideration by successful bidder Payments made after 30 days shall attract interest at the rate of 12 %. The sale shall be cancelled if the payment is not received within 90 days.

Monday, 20th April, 2020

Sanjay Gupta

Liquidator –Case Cold Roll Forming Limited

IBBI Regn. No. IBBI/IPA-003/IP-N00047/2017-18/10354

Registered Address with Board: C-4/E/135, Janak Puri,

New Delhi – 110058

Communication Address: 311, Bestech Chambers,B Block,

SushantLok Phase-1,Sector 27, Gurugram – 122002, Haryana

E-mail: casecold@primussolutions.in; Sanjay@sgaindia.in 

Date:11.03.2020

Contact No.:0124-4285388/+9810041074      

Place: New Delhi” (Emphasis Supplied)


# 5. It is the case of the Appellant that in compliance of Clause 13 of this Corrigendum, the Appellant was ready to deposit the amount with 12% interest but the Respondent was not willing to consider their request. Learned Counsel for the Appellant further submitted that the Ld. Adjudicating Authority did not interpret the Clause in its truest sense and has erroneously observed that the Clause is applicable only for payment of balance consideration of 75 % after the bidder has paid 25% of the EMD amount. The Counsel placed reliance on paras 41, 42 and 43.7 of the Judgement rendered by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Kailash Nath Associates V/s. Delhi Development Authority and Another reported in (2015) 4 SCC 136. The relevant paragraphs are reproduced as hereunder:

  • “41. It must, however, be pointed out that in cases where a public auction is held, forfeiture of earnest money may take place even before an agreement is reached, as DDA is to accept the bid only after the earnest money is paid. In the present case, under the terms and conditions of auction, the highest bid (alongwith which earnest money has to be paid) may well have been rejected. In such cases, Section 74 may not be attracted on its plain language because it applies only “when a contract has been broken”.

  • 42. In the present case, forfeiture of earnest money took place long after an agreement had been reached. It is obvious that the amount sought to be forfeited on the facts of the present case is sought to be forfeited without any loss being shown. In fact, it has been shown that far from suffering any loss, DDA has received a much higher amount on re-auction of the same plot of land.

  • 43.7 Section 74 will apply to cases of forfeiture of earnest money under a contract. Where, however, forfeiture takes place under the terms and conditions of a public auction before agreement is reached, Section74 would have no application.


The Appellant Counsel strenuously argued that in public auctions, Section 74 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 cannot be invoked at a pre-contractual stage and further that the amount sought to be forfeited on the facts of the present case is sought to be forfeited without any loss being shown.


# 6. Learned Counsel appearing for the Respondent contended that the submission by the Appellant that only two days extension was granted is factually incorrect as the ‘Corrigendum’ shows that the proposed E-Auction date was 18.03.2020; announcement of the successful bidder was on 18.03.2020; ‘LoI’ to be issued on 20.03.2020; unconditional acceptance of ‘LoI’ on 23.03.2020; payment of upto 25% of total consideration is to be done by 25.03.2020 and payment of balance consideration by 20.04.2020. He further submitted that there was absolutely no violation of any timelines on behalf of the Liquidator and that the ‘LoI’ was issued on 18.03.2020 and there was unconditional acceptance of ‘LoI’ by the Appellant on 23.03.2020, by which time the Covid-19 situation in the country was well-known. Having given an unconditional acceptance on 23.03.2020 with respect to payment of the balance amounts, the Appellant cannot now take a stand that the forfeiture was unjustified on the ground that there was lockdown in the country.


# 7. Heard both sides at length. The main issue which arises for consideration is whether the Liquidator was justified in forfeiting a part of the earnest money deposited by the Appellant.


# 8. Clause ‘J’ of the Auction terms & conditions refers to ‘Earnest Money Deposit’ (EMD) and the terms of forfeiture of ‘EMD’ from the E-Auction of the Applicant/Bidder, which is detailed as hereunder:

  • “Forfeiture of Earnest Money Deposit from the E-Auction Applicant/Bidder It is to be noted that the Earnest Money furnished can be forfeited at any time, upon the occurrence of any of the following events:

  • 1. if there is a breach of any of the conditions under this E-Auction Process Information Document by the Bidder or in case Bidder is found to have made any misrepresentation; or

  • 2. if Bidder is found to be ineligible to submit the bid as per the conditions set out in Section 29 A of the IBC (as amended from time to time) or is found to have made a false or misleading declaration of eligibility as per the conditions set out in Section 29A of the IBC (as amended from time to time); or

  • 3. if the Bidder is identified as the Successful bidder and it fails to pay 25 % of the Money within the stipulated time as per the clauses of this E-auction documents after being intimated as successful bidder by the Liquidator.

  • 4. if the Successful Bidder fails to make the complete payment as per the terms of the Letter of Intent issued by the Liquidator.

  • 5. in any of the above event, all the amounts deposited till that date shall be forfeited and the property will be offered to the next highest bidder”

(Emphasis Supplied)


# 9. The interpretation of Clause 5 by the Learned Counsel appearing for the Appellant that as the property was re-auctioned and the entire amount realized, the EMD was consequently to be refunded resulting in the non-applicability of the aforenoted clauses, is untenable, as the Clause of forfeiture does not anywhere specify that it is subject to the happening of any event viz. realization from any ‘Sale’. Undisputedly as per the timelines under the auction, the Appellant was required to make the payment of upto 25% of the total sale consideration by 25.03.2020 and the ‘LoI’ issued, was unconditionally accepted, by the Appellant on 23.03.2020. The Covid-19 situation  in  the  country  at  that  point  of  time  was  already  an  ongoing pandemic and there was declaration of Nationwide Lockdown by the Central Government vide a notification dated 24.03.2020 and hence it can be safely construed that the Appellant was well aware of the circumstances prevalent in the country.


# 10. The  e-mail  dated  18.05.2020  addressed  by  the  liquidator  to  the Appellant herein is significant to the facts of this case and is reproduced as hereunder:

“Dear Mr. Saini,

This is in furtherance to emails dated 01.04.2020, 02.04.2020, 23.04.2020 & 15.05.2020 and the last telephone call the undersigned had regarding the payment to be made by you and the assurances given in this regard.

For clarity, it is once again reiterated that the undersigned conducted E-auction for sale of specified inventory of Case Cold Roll Forming Limited in which you participated as a qualified bidder. The auction was conducted on 18.03.2020 and you were declared as a Successful Bidder. The E-auction timelines were also communicated to all the qualified bidders including you along with E-Auction Process Document dated 20.02.2020. The revised timelines were issued on 11.03.2020.

As per agreed timelines and the LoI that which you had accepted unconditionally on 23.03.2020, an amount of Rs. 93,75,197/- plus GST against 25% of the total consideration was to be paid by i.e. 25.03.2020 and balance consideration plus GST by Monday, 20.04.2020.

However, you defaulted in payment of 25% of the total consideration by 25.03.2020 and sent a request for extension of time for depositing the 25% of the total consideration.

The auction was conducted on 18th March, 2020 and at the time of E-Auction, issuance of LoI and acceptance of LoI unconditionally you were aware of the situation caused by the spread of corona virus and which was very well persisting on the day of E-auction where you were declared as successful bidder.

On declaration of you as successful bidder, the only thing remained was the transfer of funds. It may be noted that during all time of lock down, all digital services of banks were open and banks have been working too. Therefore, your obligation under the auction was not affected through COVID-19.

Though you were always informed right time of payment of consideration of sale of inventory, the undersigned extended the time of deposit of 25% of sale consideration from 25.03.2020 to 31.03.2020 vide its mail dated 29.03.2020 without relaxing the timeline to submit the balanced amount.

It is most unfortunate that despite our repeated mails dated 01.04.2020, 02.04.2020, 23.04.2020 & 15.05.2020 we neither received any response nor any consideration. The undersigned also tried to reach you over the call. The undersigned contacted Mr. Manish Saini (on Mobile No. 9816500028) on 09.05.2020 who assured to pay within 2 days. However, you failed to deposit the same.

In view of the aforesaid facts and circumstances and in terms of the provisions of the Code, the undersigned, being a custodian of the assets of the Corporate Debtor, hereby by virtue of the present notice call upon you to forthwith upon receipt of the present notice, deposit the whole consideration for sale of Inventory i.e. INR. 3,75,00,786;- (Rupees Three Crore Seventy Five Lakh Seven Hundred and Eighty Six only) plus GST within 48 hours failing which the undersigned will be at liberty to forfeit the EMD of an amount of INR 16,00,000 (Rupees Sixteen Lakh only) which has been retained by the undersigned in terms of process document and LoI as unconditionally accepted by you.

(Emphasis Supplied)


The  aforenoted  e-mail  establishes  that  despite  repeated  requests made by the Liquidator, there was no response from the Appellant herein which substantiates the case of the Respondent that the Appellant did not adhere to the timelines given in the Corrigendum. The liquidator addressed an email on 18.05.2020 asking the Appellant to deposit the total consideration amount of Rs. 3,75,00,786 by 20.05.2020, failing which, the EMD would be forfeited. As admittedly, the amount demanded was not paid by the Appellant, the amount was forfeited vide an e-mail dated 23.05.2020, in which communication, once again all the earlier e-mails were referred to, but the Appellant chose to reply only on 16.06.2020 which is almost a month thereafter.


# 11. The facts in the Judgement of Kailash Nath Associates (Supra) relied upon by the Appellant are different from the facts of the instant case. In the aforenoted Judgement, the successful bidder had paid the entire 25% of the EMD and requested for extension of time to pay the balance amount of the total sale consideration which was also extended on recommendation of two High Power Committees. Secondly, the letter of cancellation and consequent forfeiture of earnest money was made without putting the successful bidder to ‘Notice’. Finally, the other noticeable feature of the aforenoted case is that DDA specifically requested the bidder to give their consent to make the balance payment. The facts in the attendant case are distinguishable in the sense that the successful bidder herein has paid only 10% of the EMD amount and not 25%, there was no consent taken to make the balance payment alongwith interest charges and lastly, the bidder in the instant case was admittedly put to ‘Notice’ by way of repeated e-mails. Additionally, the facts specific to this case evidence that the ‘forfeiture’ has no nexus with any consequential benefit gained/or loss suffered by the Respondent.


# 12. We find it a fit case to place reliance on the Judgement of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in National Highways Authority of India v. Ganga Enterprises, (2003) 7 SCC 410,  in  which the Hon’ble  Apex Court has observed as follows:

  • “The Indian Contract Act merely provides that a person can withdraw his offer before its acceptance. But withdrawal of an offer, before it is accepted, is a completely different aspect from forfeiture of earnest/security money which has been given for a particular purpose. A person may have a right to withdraw his offer but if he has made his offer on a condition that some earnest money will be forfeited for not entering into contract or if some act is not performed, then even though he may have a right to withdraw his offer, he has no right to claim that the earnest/security be returned to him. Forfeiture of such earnest/security in no way, affects any statutory right under the Indian Contract Act. Such earnest/security is given and taken to ensure that a contract comes into existence. It would be an anomalous situation that a person who, by his own conduct, precludes the coming into existence of the contract is then given advantage or benefit of his own wrong by not allowing forfeiture. It must be remembered that, particularly in government contracts, such a term is always included in order to ensure that only a genuine party makes a bid. If such a term was not there even a person who does not have the capacity or a person who has no intention of entering into the contract will make a bid. The whole purpose of such a clause i.e. to see that only genuine bids are received would be lost if forfeiture was not permitted.”


# 13. The Hon’ble Supreme Court in State of Haryana V/s. Malik Traders, (2011) 13 SCC 200, held as under:

  • “The right to withdraw an offer before its acceptance cannot nullify the agreement to suffer any penalty for the withdrawal of the offer against the terms of agreement. A person may have a right to withdraw his offer, but if he has made his offer on a condition that the bid security amount can be forfeited in case he withdraws the offer during the period of bid validity, he has no right to claim that the bid security should not be forfeited and it should be returned to him. Forfeiture of such bid security amount does not, in any way, affect any statutory right under Section 5 of the [Contract] Act. The bid security was given by the respondent and taken by the appellants to ensure that the offer is not withdrawn during the bid validity period of 90 days and a contract comes into existence. Such conditions are included to ensure that only genuine parties make the bids. In the absence of such conditions, persons who do not have the capacity or have no intention of entering into the contract will make bids. The very purpose of such a condition in the offer/bid will be defeated, if forfeiture is not permitted when the offer is withdrawn in violation of the agreement.”


# 14. In the present case, the material on record evidences that reminder e-mails dated 01.04.2020, 02.04.2020, 23.04.2020, 15.05.2020 and 18.05.2020 were issued by the Liquidator to the Appellant herein requesting for payment of the balance amount of the 25% of the consideration but the Appellant neither replied to the e-mails nor made any payment adhering to the terms and conditions. It can be safely construed that the Appellant, by his own conduct, precluded the coming into existence of the concluded ‘Sale’ and cannot now be given an advantage or benefit of his own wrong doing by not allowing forfeiture.


# 15. Lastly, the contention of the Learned Counsel for the Appellant that Clause 13 of the Corrigendum is applicable to this case and that the same has not been considered by the Ld. Adjudicating Authority, is unsustainable on the ground that Clause 13 of the Corrigendum is with respect to payments regarding the balance 75% of the sale consideration. The timelines with respect to the initial payment of the 25% is clearly given as 25.03.2020 and the payment of balance consideration by the successful bidder was given as 24.04.2020. Viewed from any angle, it cannot be construed that Clause 13 is applicable to the initial 25% payment of the EMD amount. Be that as it may, the documentary evidence, the e-mails dated 02.04.2020, 03.04.2020, 15.05.2020 and 18.05.2020 clearly establish that sufficient opportunity was given to the Appellant to make the balance payments, which the Appellant had failed to respond or comply with the requests made and therefore we are of the considered view that Clause 3 of the “Forfeiture of Earnest Money Deposit” from the E-Auction terms and conditions, squarely applies to the facts of this case. Hence, we are of the opinion that the Ld. Adjudicating Authority has rightly dismissed the Application seeking direction for refund of the EMD.


For all the afore-noted reasons, this Appeal fails and is accordingly dismissed. No order as to costs.


-------------------------------------------------------------